The Titanic had taken a somewhat more northerly route than most liners normally had, and it was also sailing into an area (near the Grand Banks) where it had received warnings of floating bergs. At the time, no large ship had been lost to an iceberg, and it was thought that bergs did not pose a large danger to contemporary ships. (A similar passenger liner had rammed an iceberg in 1907 and was able to complete its voyage, though with damage.)

So yes, the ship was in known iceberg territory, which was not uncommon, and cutting the corner slightly closer to Newfoundland than most ships did, but there would not have been a sense on the ship that the situation or those waters were unusually dangerous.

not saying this isn't an r/askhistorians thing (it definitely is!) but are you cross posting this at something like r/askscience?