Why do historians separate , world history into three areas , ancient, post-classical and modern?

by spinosaurs70

what exactly is the point of this disctintion , when fetrues of antiqutiy survived into the middle ages, and parts of the middle ages surived into the 1800s.(serfdom)

CommodoreCoCo

As with any periodization, they are defined by convention and exist for convenience. I've never heard of any set boundaries for "ancient," as it's usually more of a description than a period. Post-classical in western Europe has a nice solid end date at the sack of Rome, but one could use it differently for different lost territories of the empire. Modern will have a different beginning for every field in every region.

All the terms say is "these things are more akin than those things." If I call Seneca and Vergil classical Latin writers, it means they have more in common with each than other with St. Jerome's Vulgate. While Jerome translated this Bible before 476, it's a typical example of medieval Latin; it was in common use for centuries after. When historians undertake studies comparing two period, we aren't looking to set a date before and after which things are different. We look for the forces and processes of change, possibly identifying individual actions, movements, or events as "modern" or "pre-modern" along the way.