After reading Danish litterature in high school i noticed that there really hasn't, at least from a Danish point of view, happened a significant change in the difference of written language from a century ago to modern day.
However A century before that (late 1700's- early 1800's), then I would say the language is very very different from ours today. Comprehending what is being said in these enlightenment era litteratures starts getting tricky, and even more so when reading something from the late baroque age.
My question is has language always evolved and changed as rapidly as it seems in the later centuries of the millennia? Because it certainly seems as if language isn't changing as fast anymore.
Also try asking /r/linguistics, either in their Q&A thread or as a separate thread.