it seems to me they just up and decided one day that jews=illuminati, illuminati=bad ergo jews=bad. what was their reasoning, and what evidence did they even use (made up or otherwise) that jews somehow controlled the world?
Part of the answer is that in 1930's Europe, lots of people didn't need to hear evidence about how bad the Jews were, they already disliked Jews for other reasons. This was true not just in Germany, but in France and lots of other European countries.
So when the Nazi propaganda machine started churning out manifestos blaming Germany's national problems on Jews, and dramatic films confirming many widely-held and very old stereotypes about Jewish people's inherent wickedness or otherness, people were likely to believe it.
hi! there's room for more input, but fyi, I rounded up these posts last week for a similar question re Hitler; you may find them useful
Some context
Why did Hitler hate the Jews to the level where mass extermination seemed ideal to him?
even broader context in this FAQ section Jewish Stereotypes and Persecution Throughout History
a closer look at Hitler himself