During the age of precious metal currency, was a coin minted by another country always legal tender, as long as it had the correct weight?

by PostHedge_Hedgehog

Was it possible to use a 1 gram (arbitrary number) silver, copper or gold coin minted in Spain to pay for goods in, for example, the German or Egyptian regions, which presumably coined its own silver coins? Were there any fees applied for using foreign currency?

LegalAction

No. The Attalids had a method by which in Pergamon and Egypt (EDIT: I don't know why Egypt slipped in there) you had to use state issued coins. When you arrive in the country you change your, say, Attic tetradrachm for the Attalid one (these were called cistophoroi, and contained about 12.75 grams silver, compared to other tetradrachm, which contained somewhere around 17.2 grams depending on which standard (Attic, Doric, whatever). Since the exchange was 1:1, the result is the government makes money by forcing you to use their coins. Almost none of these cistophoroi show up outside Asia Minor, which suggests people very well knew they were light on silver.

Oddly enough, this system continued from something like 170 BCE all the way through the reign of Hadrian. Even under Roman control they just kept striking underweight coins.

In other places it was possible to use huck silver in other times and places. For Romans, for instance, the silver content of the coin was the important part and one thing striking a consistent, recognizable coinage made it easy to trust the metal content. The government can also manipulate this; once you have a trusted coinage and you desperately need more money, you debase the quality of your coins. You make more coins with the same amount of silver. Eventually people catch on and prices go up, and trust has to be reestablished. Diocletian had this problem and tried to fix it with his price edict, and that completely failed. Establishing a trusted currency was one of the things Constantine had to do desperately, and his solidus did that effectively.