We all know slavery was a big part of America's history, and that Europe played a huge role in it. But were there slaves in West-Europe? How were they treated if there were any?

by Poutchika

Just curious as I often hear about black history month etc... As a West-European I wondered if we also imported slaves and used them, as there is no mediatization around that subject here.

Anoraklibrarian

It happened, but was an isolated phenomenon, largely relegated to Spain and Portugal. Keep in mind, all sorts of people were enslaved in Europe over the course of the centuries. The first sugar plantation were on mediterranean islands and were operated by Italians using enslaved Jewish labor. Spain and England both brought enslaved native americans and africans back to their nations as early as the 1500s. But chattel slavery in the Americas was really based around the profits of export of cash crops and the scarcity of labor in the new world (the vast majority of people transported to the new world up until the 19th century were African slaves). In europe, cheap labor was way easier to attain and so transporting enslaved people thousands of miles was not as economically viable

Kelruss

I'm just going to stick to France, but according to Tom Reiss' The Black Count (it's written by a journalist, but it's fairly well annotated, and everything I'm writing can be found in it - Reiss appears to have relied heavily on Sue Peabody's "There Are No Slaves In France" for this section), in 1691, Louis XIV determined that once a slave touched foot to France proper, they were no longer slaves. A slave girl was freed in Nantes in 1715 because her owner had not declared her a slave. This led to the Edict of 1716; which declared that slaveowners could bring slaves into France to teach them a craft or trade or to give them a religious education. Failure to register the slave forfeited ownership over the slave. The Parlement of Paris (a very important judicial organization in Ancien Regime France) refused to register the edict because it codified slavery in France.

In 1738, a team of lawyers in France won not only freedom for a slave named Jean Boucaux (who had married a Frenchwoman - one of the ways you could void slavery under the Edict of 1716) but also 4,200 livres in back pay "plus court costs and damages for false imprisonment." They apparently appealed to the etymology and history of France, claiming that the Franks opposed slavery, and that the root for Frank means "free". King Louis XV banished Boucaux from Paris.

After the trial Louis issued a new edict modifying the 1716 one. Unregistered slaves would be seized by crown and sent to the sugar colonies, and owners were prohibited from voluntarily freeing their slaves. There was then apparently a series of trials fought from the 1750s to the 1770s that generally resulted in freedom for slaves.

In 1777, Louis XVI issued the Police de Noirs which establish eight extraterritorial (and thus not affected by the free soil concept) prisons in France to hold "blacks and people of color brought onto French soil or found to be living in France illegally" and mandated that all slaves who had entered illegally before 1777 be rounded up and deported. In 1778, amendments required that all subjects of color in Paris had to have a certificate with their name, their age, and their owner if they had one. White subjects were also forbade from marrying nonwhites. In 1780, the titles of Sieur and Madame were banned from being used by people of color. Reiss concludes this chapter by noting these were all poorly-administered laws, but it would take Napoleon to make them function efficiently.

Edit: Changed the second Louis XIV to Louis XVI.