Why is Game of thrones not an accurate depiction of medieval times?

by ywecur

I've often head this stated in this sub but it's never been expanded upon.

Aside from the magic, which I see as a way to represent what they perceived as the unknown, why is it wrong?

butter_milk

Wrong isn't quite the right word. GoT is not set in Medieval Europe, so by its very nature it can't be historically accurate. What was the historical Westeros like? Whatever George R R Martin wanted it to be like. The issue arises when people start assuming that it is an accurate depiction of the Medieval world. It is not. It's an amalgamation of times and cultures woven together to give an interesting cultural and political background to a fantasy story. So when people start asking, well did X happen in the Middle Ages, or assuming that GoT is "accurate" we often have to point out that whatever it was did not, or is an adaptation of something similar, or never ever happened. Medieval Europeans didn't commonly use morphine, for example, never used Ravens to send messages, etc.

OldWorldGlory

You might be interested in previous threads on the relation of the Game of Thrones TV show and the A Song of Ice and Fire book series to medieval history:

#General Comparisons

What time period does Game of Thrones / A Song of Ice and Fire most resemble or borrow the most inspiration from?


This is Part 1 of 3.

Part 2 of 3 deals with specific comparisons between George R.R. Martin's works and Medieval history in aspects such as warfare, politics, and daily life.

Part 3 of 3 deals with miscellaneous topics such as the comparing the prevalence of rape, finding historical counterparts to the Iron Bank of Braavos, discussing the beauty (or lack therof) of Medieval royal women, and cases of royal incest.

cecikierk

The most prominent thing for me is presentism. For example when Tyrion refused to consummate his marriage with Sansha, he said he will not rape her. Calling marital rape as rape is a very modern concept, most countries did not make it a crime until very recently. In the Middle Ages, the Decretum Gratiani stated that: "neither a wife may make a vow of abstinence without the consent of her husband, nor the husband without the consent of his wife”.