In 266 BCE Rome controlled all of Italy why were they able to do this instead of the Greeks or the Estruscans?

by Billdo13
CommodoreCoCo

The question you should be asking is "Why did they?" rather than "Why were they able to?" Until the Macedonian kings united/conquered the other Greek city states, the Greeks didn't do much conquering. They sent out colonies and such, but most conflict was either between themselves (Peloponnesian War) or against a common enemy (Persian Wars). It's not like there was either a unified Greek state or any Greek attempts to conquer Italy.