Hey guys, so my understanding is that it's because capitalism leads to Weber's defintion of the modern state, "monopoly of the legitimate use of physical force" within the given territoriy, and that it leads to this through:
If we're continuing along this line of thought (humour me here if you disagree with this perspective, it's for a debate I'm going to have in my course) why does capitalism lead to these two factors?
Thank you for your time historians!
Just a quick historical reminder here, keeping in mind that history is not just one event leading to another, but rather the confluence of an unbelievable amount of complicated interactions turning into a narrative that in some way or another fits into the historians ideas about their culture: The modern Western European state system was generally thought to have been created in the Peace of Westphalia in 1648, which ended the Thirty Years War. Capitalism as an economic system was not really articulated as what we now see it as until Adam Smith wrote his Wealth of Nations, written in 1776. So from a conventional historians point of view, the modern state system actually predates the invention of capitalism.