Why does it seem that personal unions were far more common in Europe than in the rest of the world?

by ptolemytheumpteenth

Considering the frequency with which personal unions occurred in Europe (the Hapsburgs being the most obvious but also in Poland, Britain, and Scandinavia to name a few) and the seeming lack of personal unions elsewhere I was curious if there were certain political, religious, cultural, or economic reasons for and against the occurrence of personal unions. I will admit that this question was mainly inspired by EU4 so it is highly likely I am simply misinformed.

oldgeezerhippie1

Could you describe what a "personal union" is please?