If aragorn was such a great king, how was it so simple for his kingdom to become a lesser partner in a union under Castile?

by SheamusMurchadh
CommodoreCoCo

This is a common confusion. Aragorn was the famed king of Gondor, while the Iberian kingdom was Aragon. Both parties were aware of this coincedence: we have a journal entry from Aragorn that expresses his anger at receiving mail meant for King Peter IV of Aragon for the umpteenth time.