Why is the modern term used to refer to people from Israel, Israeli, and not the more historical and biblical Israelite?

by snowtrooper

I've just wondered why there was a rise of a new term to put into use when one already existed?

kookingpot

It is derived from the actual modern Hebrew word for "a person from Israel", ישראלי, which is transliterated as "Israeli". The -i suffix is a common one in Biblical and Modern Hebrew to describe a person belonging to the same group. Other examples include פְּלִשְׁתִּי (pilishti - Philistine), and אֱמֹרִי (emori - Amorite). It is basically the same thing as the English -ite suffix. In the Hebrew Bible, the Hebrew people were called בְנֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל, or "Children of Israel". "Israelite" is a modern translation of that which is Anglicized (coming from the French and Latin). Typically, "Israelite" denotes the ancient group, specifically those from the northern kingdom of Israel, while "Israeli" denotes a citizen of the modern state of Israel, which has existed since 1945 1948 AD.

Edit: error correction