Someone recently told me that same-sex relationships were condoned in medieval Europe and did not become taboo until the Age of Enlightenment. Is this true? Why?

by [deleted]

Here's the person who said it, they didn't have much more information when I asked so I wondered if one of you would know: http://www.reddit.com/r/Christianity/comments/319ypx/dont_blame_christianity_for_your_homophobia/

idjet

This is a good example of what happens to history when media turns it into a sound bite.

Here is the source essay, historian Allan Tulchin's Same-Sex Couples Creating Households in Old Regime France: The Uses of the Affrèrement

The author makes it pretty clear that homosexual relations can only be inferred into the legal arrangement called 'affrèrement', with no direct proof available. The author's point, as he takes great pains to make clear in the introduction, is to show that modern claims that the traditional nuclear family was the only family type protected in western law since time immemorial is false. Affrèrement seems to have died out as a legal custom by the end of the early modern period.

Inferring romantic-sexual relations into some relationships who joined households under affrèrement is not a stretch. But homosexual acts - along with heterosexual fornication outside marriage I would add - were considered punishable sins under medieval canon law, although rarely punished. Homosexual acts were also punishable under civil law in some jurisdictions as well.

We can see then that diametrically opposing condoned/not-condoned is not a useful conceptual tool for understanding social relations, law and religion in medieval-early modern Europe.