"Explain the rationale for acquiring colonies rather than repeating the European experience in China."
Is the "experience" that this question is talking about the Opium Wars and the Spheres of Influence?
"Was there an advantage in colonizing parts of Africa and Asia that was absent with China?"
Okay so I'm kinda lost on this one. Africa had basically already surrendered due to the slave trade which put entire economic regions into shambles due to less labor in the continent itself. thus, no Industrial Revolution and easy exploitation of resources in Africa. China already traded with Europe and so, did Europe see no sizable benefit to colonialism in distant china which would've been costly. Not to mention invading nomads......
THIS IS A HOMEWORK QUESTION YET I DID MY OWN "RESEARCH" (SUBREDDIT RULES) AND AM ASKING FOR IDEAS
It's very difficult and takes a long time to take over a large country, and effectively impossible to it profitably. Because central authority in China never collapsed like India did during British colonization, Europe power can't take over chunk by chunk by engaging smaller forces and enlisting local allies. And when China's central authority did collapse into the warlord period, Europe itself is engulfed in the Great War.