Is there any particular reason as to why the French, English and Dutch colonies have become more developed whereas the Portuguese and Spanish colonies haven't done so?

by [deleted]

As to clarify is there any particular reason as to why the countries that originated from the Spanish and Portuguese colonies didn't develop quite as well as the colonies of other countries?

(Just another way to put it but why did the colonies of countries such as Spain and Portugal form LEDCs whereas those of England, France and the Netherlands form MEDCs?)

oldgeezerhippie1

What data are you using to suggest that generally speaking Africa is more modern/developed than South America?