This question has to be narrowed down or the answer can only be yes and no. I'm going to assume that you mean the rural population which would be the most representative demographic for the country in general. It could be argued that in 1750, Britain and The Netherlands would have higher living standards that the rest of Europe, the tradtional view of Northwestern Europe as the modernizing and driving part of the world. On the other hand was Scandinavia, aka the rest of Northwestern Europe, dirt poor. The rural population of Sweden, especially the eastern parts, where ravaged by reoccuring famines and epidemics, a cycle which continued up until the latter half of the 19th century.

I have to admit that I'm not very well versed in the living conditions of eastern europe, but I can't imagine that it could be significantly worse than rural Scandinavia, apart from the institution of serfdom and how that impacted on the life of the ordinary farmer. I'm sure someone with better knowledge can correct me.

tl;dr: It was not fun being a farmer in Scandinavia in 1750.