In every language that I'm aware of, names (for people) are usually separated by gender, even if there is some overlap (such as "Lesley" in American, now), or borrowing that consciously / intentionally goes against the usual gender association of a name.
Has this always been the case? Among cultures today, how much variation is there -- do some cultures today have very little or no gender-based separation of names? How much has this varied in the past, that we know of?
Greetings prospective respondents! Just a reminder of which subreddit this is: it's /r/AskHistorians, so no anecdotes or conjecture, and don't just give examples of non-gendered names. Respondents are expected to have expertise in the subject, offer in-depth information and cite reputable sources. Thanks!
OP, you might consider x-posting to /r/AskAnthropology or /r/AskSocialScience