Wikipedia states: "On 17 September 1394, Charles VI suddenly published an ordinance in which he declared, in substance, that for a long time he had been taking note of the many complaints provoked by the excesses and misdemeanors which the Jews committed against Christians; and that the prosecutors, having made several investigations, had discovered many violations by the Jews of the agreement they had made with him. Therefore he decreed as an irrevocable law and statute that thenceforth no Jew should dwell in his domains ("Ordonnances", vii. 675). According to the Religieux de St. Denis, the king signed this decree at the instance of the queen ("Chron. de Charles VI." ii. 119).[29] The decree was not immediately enforced, a respite being granted to the Jews in order that they might sell their property and pay their debts. Those indebted to them were enjoined to redeem their obligations within a set time; otherwise their pledges held in pawn were to be sold by the Jews. The provost was to escort the Jews to the frontier of the kingdom. Subsequently the king released the Christians from their debts."
Where did the French Jews go after being expelled from the Kingdom of France?
In this time period, would Jews have been allowed to live in Christian cities or were they forced to live in their own villages?
Would jewish peasants in Europe generally dressed the same as Christian peasants?
Eventually to Poland/the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, as did most Jews expelled from Western European countries throughout the latter Middle Ages and Renaissance. Many would settle in the Netherlands and Germany along the way, but by the middle of the 16th century it's estimated that approximately 3/4 of all Jews lived in Poland. This is because Poland was by far the most religiously-tolerant nation in Europe, with Polish law protecting Jews and freedoms of religion on an unprecedented scale throughout most of it's history--Poland was known as paradisus Iudaeorum (Latin for "Paradise for Jews"). The majority of this population would later be "inherited" by the Russian Empire after the partitions of Poland, leading to the famous Pale Settlement.
This wikipedia article covers the subject very extensively.
Polish cities famously had large populations of Jewish residents, particularly those in Eastern Poland--though there were many smaller Jewish settlements and villages as well. So yes, Jews were allowed to live in certain Christian cities, at least those in Poland.