How come Brazil stayed whole after they declared their independence while the land owned by the Spanish became separate countries? | AskHistorians Archive Observer

How come Brazil stayed whole after they declared their independence while the land owned by the Spanish became separate countries?

by Jjum1

I always wondered why Brazil stayed whole while the Spanish land became separated after there independence was declared. Thank you to anyone who can answer this question.

Diupa

You can read in these links: http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/17lhqw/in_south_america_why_are_spanishspeaking/

http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/202slv/why_did_the_spanish_colonies_in_south_america/