Schizophrenia has a hereditary component, for example. I was wondering if the deaths of a large number of mentally ill people in the 1930s led to relatively lower rates of hereditary mental illness in, say, the 1980s.
I recently saw a documentary on this and with regard to schizophrenic patients specifically, here was the outcome according to that documentary and is backed up by this Pubmed article:
Postwar studies of the prevalence of schizophrenia in Germany reported low rates, as expected. However, postwar rates of the incidence of schizophrenia in Germany were unexpectedly high. [...] The Nazi genocide of psychiatric patients [...] had no apparent long-term effect on the subsequent incidence of schizophrenia.
Source: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2800142/
I do hope these sources are satisfactory, this is my first post here.
Please see my response to this recently.