Hello guys, I am having a debate(discussion) tomorrow and I want some help. I already have a position and did my research so please dont flame me.
This is the question: Some historians have seen the Late Middle Ages as the most intensely pious period of Catholic belief, while others have identified it as the most dysfunctional, where the gap between the clergy and the laity was at its greatest. Based on what you have learned from the lectures and readings, which view is closer to the truth? In your response, be sure to address any counter-arguments.
My opinion is that they were intensely pious at the time. Due to the outbreak of the plague, and how little medicine helped the disease people looked toward the church more and focused on the realities of death. With death as a dominant presence it helped people become more religious. People confessed their sins more and started taking religious more seriously.
Also, purgatory became more commonly accepted so people would get together more often and say prayers for the dead. Many people during this time wanted to help people get to heaven so they participated in requiem masses. Even the wealthy decided to create chantries. Another thing that was prevalent was priests as mediators. The priests had authority to hear confession and grant absolution.
Other than the fact that some members of the church were corrupt what can someone else say to refute my argument? I can not find anything that suggests the gap with the clergy and laity are large.
where the gap between the clergy and the laity was at its greatest.
How do you interpret what defines a 'gap'? Here are some questions to think about, because a gap wouldn't just be defined by, say, the relevance of Sunday Mass, or a local saint's shrine, to laity:
Was there a perception of economic disparity (ie Church as extractor of wealth at this time)? How did this affect lay relations to the Church?
Was there disjuncture between orthodoxy and local customs or heresies (ie relevance of sacraments, etc)? How did the Church 'enforce' orthodoxy and compliance?
Was there a class differentiation - did the Church mean something different to, or treat differently, peasants, townsmen, nobility?
Did the medieval church become progressively more active in gendering beliefs? What did Christianity mean to men vs women in the late middle ages?
How did the Church change in its treatment of Jews in western Europe in the late middle ages?
How did the Church and secular governance interact in the late medieval period? How did this affect secular or religious life?