Dear /r/AskHistorians,

I'm currently in the process of writing an essay that will focus on how racism was created in the early middle colonies, and the role that slavery then played in the formation of the Revolutionary War. I wanted to focus on how prior to about 1670, African Americans were treated fairly equally by other white landowners, an example being Anthony Johnson and his court case v. his neighbor over a runaway indentured servant. So I essentially have a few key questions that can be answered briefly:

1. Are there any other examples such as Johnson's where a black man/woman was treated equally?

2. As Anthony Parent argues in his book "Foul Means" there was a key group of white plantation land owners that, post Bacon's rebellion, created the race division over the class division. Essentially, as long as you were white (no matter how poor) you were still better than any black man. Was this accurate?

3. How pivotal was slavery in the formation of the Revolutionary War? It is my understanding that during this time period (mid 1700s) the British were banning slavery throughout their empire, and America was becoming resistant. Was slavery a major cause or more an accessory cause?

Any thoughts that could help me tie all this together would be greatly appreciated. I'm currently flying across the country so I've got time to talk as well. Thanks in advance for any assistance you can provide!