The simple answer is no. As always, a full answer is more complex, especially because racial definitions have changed quite a bit over time.

There were slaves who were descendants of white fathers and slave mothers for several generations who had mostly white ancestry- Sally Hemings was a slave of Thomas Jefferson who was three-quarters white and had several children by him. The status of these children varied based on the time period and location, and their social standing could vary from their legal standing, but the upshot is that there were enslaved people who would likely have been today identified as white.

It's a little strange to answer for Hispanics, because Hispanic is not a racial or ethnic category- I have a friend who is nearly full-blooded Irish but could be considered Hispanic because some of his ancestors emigrated to Argentina and their descendants came to the United States. As a category, it was really only developed in the latter part of the 20th century. If we extrapolate back in time, the question devolves into, "Was there ever a slave in the United States who was born in the Spanish Americas?", to which I highly suspect the answer is yes.

Technically not if we accept the definition of a slave to be bound to the status as property. But Orlando Patterson offers a different definition of slavery as the “permanent, violent and personal domination of natally alienated persons” - in which case there were many Irish/English/German indentured labourers who could be classified as slaves.

Disclaimer: I don't 100% buy into Patterson's definition but think it's an interesting take on slavery.

Ultimately at some point in the 1660s/70s Caribbean black slaves replaced white indentured labourers for a number of reasons, the same process repeated itself in the first quarter of the 18th century on the mainland. Once slavery had been established upon such racial lines, it was impossible for any white Englishmen/American to see another white man as a slave.