Can any conclusions be drawn from a comparison between present day income inequality in America and the Estates-General fallout (i.e. French Revolution) of 1789 France?

by Wonka_Raskolnikov
Searocksandtrees

This submission has been removed because it violates our '20-Year Rule'. To discourage off-topic discussions of current events, questions, answers and all other comments must be confined to events that happened 20 years ago or more. Consider x-posting this to /r/history, /r/askhistory or a current affairs sub.

To be clear: in order to compare present day income inequality, the current state must be analysed, assessed and discussed, which violates the rule. Alternatively, you could re-post asking for information re 1789 France, make your own comparison & draw your own conclusions.