Are there any marked differences in eyesight between people that have historically had access to glasses, and those that haven't?

by greeneggs973

I don't know when glasses were invented/when they grew common, and I somewhat doubt they've been around long enough to cause an actual evolutionary trend, but thought it couldn't hurt to ask you guys. Thanks!

redditho24602

You've got your cause and effect backwards. There may be a genetic component to nearsightedness, but there's a growing scientific consensus that spending lots of time indoors seems to contribute to it. So it's not "people who have access to glasses are more likely to need them," it "people who spend a lot of time indoors doing deskwork/reading/watching TV are far more likely to need glasses." You spend 3/4 of your waking hours walking around outside hunting or farming or fishing or whatnot, you're far less likely to become nearsighted.

For instance, there was a famous study of Inuit people in Northern Alaska in the 60's who grew up in remote villages --- among adults less than 2% were nearsighted, but among children, who had access to modern conveniences, went to school, etc., nearsightedness levels were about the same as the American average. Nearsightedness is now increasing hugely in East Asia and India. This Nature article goes into it more.