I have been reading quite a bit about the Armenian Genocide. A significant part of denier's arguments seem to be based around the idea that (paraphrasing) 'Crimes were committed by all sides' and that thus the term genocide is not appropriate. I'm hoping that I can ask this without ending up in a debate over the term genocide or whether the Armenian Genocide happened. I am not a genocide denier, and I ask these questions out of curiosity about the political and ethnic climate at the time.
What I would like to know more about is if or to what extent there were crimes against Muslim Ottomans in parts of the empire during this time.
Is there a reason I'm getting down-voted?
I saw these yesterday, and was eagerly waiting for a rebuttal to my comment. I'm not an expert on the topic, and thought maybe someone knew something I didn't, and I'd learn something new about this subject.
At this point, its looking like people just didn't like what I had to say, irrespective of whether it was accurate or not.
To a great extent, and even before it. Read up on 'Persecution of Ottoman Muslims'.