I know he didn't, I just want someone professional to tell me how ridiculous this is (ie. what evidence would we have found if he did).
This is with regards to a certain early islamic revisionist theory that places mecca and the Quraysh in palestine. Abraha's attack on mecca is attested to in genuine pre-islamic sources and seems quite plausible with the discovery of recent Sabean inscriptions. If the revisionist theory is correct, then Abraha must have lead an attack on palestine which is in the byzantine empire.
I already find this implausible due to Abraha being an ally of the byzantines at one point.
Whilst this is an ingenious attempt at harmonising various conflicting historical traditions, this is not exactly a fool-proof way to disproof the 'revisionist' version of early Islamic history. Abraha certainly attempted to dominate all of Arabia, but his attack on Mecca is not reflected in the epigraphical record. His attack was on central Arabia into the territory of the Ma‘add tribal confederacy and was perhaps an attempt to defeat the Lakhmid Arabs, who were allies of the Persian Empire (since the Romans had tried to get Abraha to join in their war-effort against Persia). Abraha may well have struck at Mecca as well, since another attack was recorded along the western coast of Arabia and it is possible that the Persians had some interest in the western Hijaz, but this cannot be directly linked to the Mecca of the seventh century. Whilst I'm not convinced that the 'real' Mecca was placed in northern Arabia or in Palestine, Abraha's attempt to achieve hegemony over Arabia did not exclude the possibility that Muhammad began his career elsewhere from the Mecca we all know about, since we have no direct evidence that Abraha actually invaded Mecca, nor for the fact that Muhammad was definitively from Mecca.