Alasdair MacIntyre makes the claim that our moral systems of classifying judgements, arguments and deeds in terms of morality was a relatively new notion during the Enlightenment. Is this true?

by llamaworld02

Also our concept of morality can find no equivalent in systematic methodologies in the late Latin and Greek cultures.

I understand virtue ethics were around, as well as a few other philosophies, but to put it crudely, these seem to be more of a lifestyle choice and rather a system for discovering right and wrong. MacIntyre states that the greek "ethikos" and the latin "moralis" really pertain to a man's character, "where a man's character is nothing other than his set of dispositions to behave systematically in one way another, to lead one particular kind of life."

Christianity, Judaism, etc. show signs of Kantianism, and utilitarianism, but they never take the rules of either to the extreme. Systematic morality always seems to be secondary to lifestyle. So is what MacIntyre saying true?

Edit: word

qed1

You may have want to cross post this to /r/askphilosophy.