The New Testament was written in a dialect of Greek, right? But Christianity spread through Latin Europe via Latin speakers. So did multiple people have to translate it from Greek to Latin independently of each other, or was there a single accepted translation that almost everyone used? If the former, did major differences in translation exist, and did these cause theological disputes?
The Greek to Latin translation of the entire text that gained official, backed status was St. Jerome's translation in the late 4th century, known as the Latin Vulgate. There had been previous translations of parts of the New Testament, but the Vulgate was the first comprehensive translation from beginning to end of the whole Bible and has remained the official Catholic Latin Bible until present.
While Jerome had a very strong background in Greek, he only had a far rougher grasp on Hebrew, so his Old Testament is a fusion of his translations from Hebrew with translations from the Septuagint, or the original Greek translation of the Old Testament, and both preserves some of the Septuagint's original mistranslations with a few of his own. (It is, for example, thanks to St. Jerome's translation of Exodus that people picked up the idea that Moses had horns because Jerome mistranslated a line about the rays of light coming out of Moses' face after he saw God as horns)
The issues with the Vulgate regained popular interest in the generations up to the Reformation. In the early 16th century, Cardinal Francisco Jiménez de Cisneros published the Polyglot Bible, soon followed by the scholar Erasmus with a similar project. The Polyglot Bible put the Hebrew text, the Greek text, and the Latin text side by side with a glossary and quickly revealed some of the issues with Jerome's text. Protestants would reject the so-called "deuterocanonical" books or the "apocrypha," books that were in the Septuagint but not in the original Hebrew Old Testament that, thanks to the Vulgate, had become canonical parts of the Latin Old Testament canon.