On wikipedia, it says, "Evidence of slavery predates written records, the practice of slavery would have proliferated after the development of agriculture during the Neolithic Revolution about 11,000 years ago."
But there's a citation needed. Is it fair to say that humans didn't start enslaving each other until after we began farming?
hi.. it may be worth x-posting this to our sister sub /r/AskAnthopology; questions about Neolithic man (plus or minus) typically refer to prehistory so you may get more answers there