Why is it that the native peoples of Central and South America are much more integrated into the population of their current countries, as opposed to the population division between natives and non-natives in the U.S. and Canada?

by Grandidentata

To be more specific, I understand that the U.S. by and large set out to exterminate Native populations. Obviously in Mexico, Central, and South America there were actions of brutality, as well as decimation by disease, but at some point it appears that integration of European settlers and natives occurred. Was this a purposeful and national directive from Spain? Or did it occur in individual countries over time? Or something else? Also, I understand that not everywhere is well integrated, and some countries are more European and some are more native, etc.

Searocksandtrees

hi! there's lots of room for more input on this one, but just FYI, there are a few related posts in the FAQ that can get you started

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