Can you elaborate? I'm going to go out on a limb and say not accurate at all, but it would help if you could expand a little bit on this line of thinking. All that being said, since the premise of your question rests on the assumption that feudalism existed and was presumably uniform, I would invite you to look at this previous AMA, which may help you to understand some of the issues with this question: https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2bs0rc/ama_feudalism_didnt_exist_the_social_political/

Ah, the F-word debate looms! The great Marc Bloch indeed considered a broadly-defined "feudal society" the product of a very long-term process originating in the decay/transformation of Roman agricultural organisation, coupled with the arrival in the West of Germanic forms: his approach has since been challenged, but much depends on one's notion of "feudal". A stricter concept of feudalism in terms of knightly arrangements would see its origins in the 8th and 9th centuries in what is now France and some neighbouring areas.