I'm not a communist, just to clarify. I'm curious, and don't know much about the subject. I ask this to find out if something said on a thread in r/FULLCOMMUNISM. He/she said that 'The Holodomor is not taken seriously by any decent historian'. I do not know the validity of this claim, and I am completely neutral about it, because I know nothing of this subject. Please enlighten me.
Oh, I just remembered, here's another similar thing. Again, I cannot stress enough that I have no knowledge of Soviet era history, I am Neutral. EDIT: They might of meant it was not man-made, or that it was unintentional.
There is no doubt that the Holodomor existed, in the sense that we know that several million Ukrainians died of starvation. The question that historians argue over is whether the famine was intentional or exacerbated by the Soviet government, and whether the term is appropriate (this is part of the argument over whether the famine was intentional or intentionally extended).
I am by no means an expert on the subject, but you may find some of these past threads from our FAQ useful while you wait for an answer. You can always tag a user with /u/ in front of his or her username for more information.
What did Stalin stand to gain in the Ukrainian famine? (2 years ago, 10 comments)
Why isn't the Ukrainian Famine of 31-33 considered genocide? And do you think it should be, or not? (2 years ago, 47 comments, links to other previous threads)