The financial and political reasons are delusionally linked to his racial views. I'm not entirely sure if we should attempt to separate them, or why the question seems to imply that because you have political or economic reasons for hating a particular group, that you are no longer a racist. Hitler had his reasons, and they weren't very reasonable. However, a brief overview...

Hitler and the Nazi party were powerful and vocal supporters of the "stab-in-the-back" theory, which proclaimed that businesses, communists and Jews (whom he believed were intrinsically linked to both) were responsible for Germany's defeat in WWI, not the situation at the front. It is basically attempting to say that the German national spirit was 'corrupted' by these outside elements within Germany. The same theory also believes the starvation and economic paralysis gripping Germany in 1918 were deliberate efforts of these aforementioned phantom conspirators.

Naturally, its all false. The German military was out of reserves and rapidly was running out of space to trade (being on the verge of falling back into the homeland) in 1918, they were defeated militarily, it was but a matter of time. Economically, there is strong evidence to suggest that the German government was devaluing its own currency, that the overarching strain of prolonged war was making its presence felt and that the blockade effected by the Entente was beginning to have overwhelming visual effects. The blaming of the over-throwing of the Monarchy being the fault of 'Communist agitators' and Jews fails to acknowledge the fact that the German Navy and significant elements of the German Army were key in effecting the overthrow of the Monarchy - which of course negates any notion that one was 'stabbed in the back.'

Regardless, the idea that these elements were comprised of Jewish-German businesses, or funded by them, was espoused by Hitler.

Something that wasn't addressed in the post by BritainOpPlsNerf is the fact that Jews were a marginalized, discriminated group throughout Europe and elsewhere since their initial expulsion from Judea by the Romans and possibly even before that. During the crusades beginning around the turn of the 12th Century, some of the very first targets of militant Christian knights and pilgrims were Jewish villages and/or communes.

I thought of an example in England where, lacking specifics, a child died of some illness and a few families of Jews who lived nearby were blamed. Their was a claim that they had used Jewish magic or worshiped the Devil, and in doing so had killed the child as a sacrifice. Several Jews were killed and the rest were forced to seek asylum in a nearby castle, the owner of which was very accommodating as he relied on Jewish artisans for the taxes that they paid.