It's changed geographically, of course, the decline in Europe's share being the most obvious example. The century in fact falls into two halves, with the US share rising in the first and then falling with first European and Japanese recovery and later the rise of emerging economies. Within the US its centre of gravity has shifted westward. Socially, its distribution became less uneven over the century as a whole, with still rising inequality in the first decades, then narrowing associated with war, Depression and increased taxation, and lastly renewed divergence from around the 1970s with the return to laissez-faire and the growth of economies where wealth inequality remained high. Globally, capital ownership was less unequal in the 1990s than in the 1890s, reflecting the rising share of a growing middle class, now increasingly in the form of pension fund investments, though the trend was once again to growing disparity: those without tended to remain without. In terms of what's owned, the big move globally has been from farmland to industrial and business capital (notably in later developing countries, echoing 19th-century European and North American experience) and above all housing.

I take it you mean the 100 years prior to 1995 - else this question would be a violation of our 20-year rule.