I've been reading a historical novel set in ancient Rome and it's made frequent references to educated, aristocratic Romans having to read aloud in order to make sense of text. It even once explicitly stated that everyone had to read aloud.
The way they're described, it almost sounds like they're all dyslexic or something.
Was that a thing? Could Romans not read to themselves silently for some reason?
I can't imagine why that would be, nor can I find any explanation from googling the subject.
Here's a [link to a thread from 2 years ago in AskHistorians] (https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1e2wlf/when_did_silent_reading_become_common/) where I offer some suggestions about silent reading v. reading aloud. Be sure to follow the link suggested by Rosemary85 (her name has since been deleted; it's in the comment beginning "Silent reading has been common as long as there have been readers.")