my impression - from i don't know what - is that there wasn't too much stratification of wealth - is that accurate?
i mean, i imagine it differed with time and place - oooh i hope this doesn't count as a throughout-history-no-no
thank you!
:)
If you want an in depth answer, at least specify a time period (0-500 AD vs. 2000 BC) or a location (Mesoamerica, North American Plains, Andes). The social stratification of 1400s Souix in the Dakotas would be rather different than that found in the 400 AD Peruvian Wari empire.