Looking at art from the 3rd century onward until the renaissance period. Art technique in the West was less detailed.
I'm not an art historian by any means, but you may be interested in some of these previous answers from our FAQs:
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1hqcvq/why_were_sculptures_so_well_done_in_ancient_times/ (24 comments, two years ago)
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1ceool/why_couldnt_people_draw_realistically_in_the/ (12 comments, two years ago)
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1l1vp2/why_is_ancientmiddle_ages_art_is_technically_much/ (15 comments, two years ago)
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/199hmy/how_correct_is_the_view_that_we_lacked_the/ (5 comments, two years ago)
These are all from this section: https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/wiki/art#wiki_why_wasn.27t_ancient_art_realistic.3F
If I could summarize the arguments very briefly, it boils down to this: Art has cultural meanings that go beyond photorealism (and it would be interesting to contemplate the effect that photography has on "realism" in portraiture). Much art is based around telling a story, and many stories aren't best told with a full-perspective 3-d view but can be better told with sprawling and even non-linear depictions of scenes.