What events, arguments and/or societary norms lead the United States to go with the First Past the Post voting method?

by WhiteRussian90

I can't seem to find anything that specifically states FPTP is our official method nor can I find anything that nails down just how the Founding Fathers decided on this method.

I tried Articles I & II of the Constitution but didn't see anything. I've heard it had something to do with the "Jeffersonian Revolution" but couldn't find anything down that avenue either.

Were there other examples of voting methods at the time - either contemporary or historical that the FF's drew upon?

Was there even a debate about how votes would be cast and attributed?

Who was on what side?

Where can I do some reading for myself?

Thank you all!

AmesCG

This is a great question! Your starting point is Article I, Section 4, Clause 1, which provides that:

The Times, Places and Manner of holding Elections for Senators and Representatives, shall be prescribed in each State by the Legislature thereof

In other words, states set the procedures, including party primaries, for sending a representative to the House. I'm afraid I can't answer off the top of my head when and why first-past-the-post became the nationwide default, but I'm also fairly confident it predated the Jeffersonian revolution. Gordon Wood's Empire of Liberty, for one, writes about early-1800s state legislative races as chaotic affairs resulting in heavy turnover in single member races (i.e., few reelected incumbents).

Edit to add: I should have explained a few terms. First-past-the-post means top candidates win; single-member means one winner per race. Some early state races were "at large" meaning elections are statewide with multiple winners chosen off the top. An alternative to FPTP is proportional, where voters choose a party slate, and each party wins seats based on their vote share. That would have been impossible prior to the formation of major parties.