In the SCOTUS case of Obergefell v. Hodges, Justice Samuel Alito claimed that "Until the end of the 20th century, there never was a nation or a culture that recognized marriage between two people of the same sex." Is this true at all?

by shapaza
Reedstilt

We had a similar question immediately after the decision; here's my reply to that one.

Way-Nerd

Reedstilt's comment is of high quality, and should be read.

Counterexamples can be found in European history as well. Several of the works of John Boswell (1947-1994, Yale) cover this. I haven't read any, but he is clearly a "legitimate" and well-regarded historian, and not just some ya-hoo.

Let me state this in a respectful and general way:

I have observed that when someone trained in a non-history field tries to do History, they do it badly (Which is why many authors use an "Historical Advisor" or collaborator).

Justice Alito's writings do not change my opinion in this matter.