Or is it the feudal land that is put up for sale? The latter wouldn't make sense from the grammatical structure, but the former confuses me more.
In the actual document that abolished feudalism, an excerpt from one of the articles reads "All perpetual ground rents, payable either in money or in kind, of whatever nature they may be, whatever their origin and to whomsoever they may be due, . . . shall be redeemable at a rate fixed by the Assembly". Are this the same issue? What is it that is being "redeemed"? What is "redeeming" in this case?
I've been researching for a while and have been tripped up but this. I only need a quick clarification. Thank you.
From what I have read, it's the latter, that feudal lands were put up for sale.
An important part of funding the Revolution is that sale of feudal lands since it let many buy lands that they worked on (rare) and let the middle class expand into a formerly noble focused area. I would also recommend you look at this question I asked during the Feudalism AMA we had about a year ago.
Feudal dues were indeed put up for sale. They were seen as property owned by the aristocracy, and those subject to them could free themselves from the obligation by buying them back (redeeming them). Simply abolishing all of them was too radical to be possible at the time, so some were abolished outright while others were made redeemable. The unsold dues were eventually abolished in 1793.