After World War II, did men from nations that sustained high casualties such as Germany and the USSR find themselves with a huge abundance of single women to pursue romantically?

by jfremont68

Since male populations in particular were devastated in some nations, I figured that returning single men, or even just those who never went, would be massively outnumbered by women their age. Did this make it easier for them to find women? On the same note, were women of a certain age more likely to be spinsters?

Feezec

This raises tons of demographics related questions for me as well. Did the war create a clearer "generational" divide in politics? Did the agricultural/economic disruption make a lasting impact on children's development? We're generational cycles of poverty/abuse broken/begun?

ron_leflore
TheIlliteratePoster

Could there be a connection between the lack of males in late and post WWII and the rabid anti-homosexual reaction in the Soviet Union/Russia after that era and into the present? I mean, like in the case of we need children to replenish the social/labor/military ranks?

nappythrill22

As a follow up question (is that allowed?) has anyone ever studied the genetics of Germans or Russians born during or right after the war? I have read that rape was rampant on both sides, especially once the Russians invaded Eastern Germany. How did this affect the genetic makeup of East Germans, and was their any noticeable societal effect afterwards?