I'm afraid your question may be built on a faulty premise.

I don't think there could be a fair "Christian" analogy because names like "Christian", "Christ" or "Jesus" aren't even super common in the languages where they are more prevalent.

"Jesus" is frequently one of the most common names in many Spanish speaking countries. "Christ" is a title which may account for why it's not a common name, but "Christian" certainly is.

It wouldn't be equivalent to just say that many common names in the Anglo/Christian world are derived from Biblical names because that is also a continuation of names that were just around during a previous historical time period.

As is the case with many popular Arabic names. Muhammad's father was named Abdullah (Servant of God). Many people in the period in which Muhammad lived had names that you would today consider Islamic, but these names predate Islam as a religion.

But the more important factor is not if the names pre-date Jesus but instead if the names are given today as an expression of faith.

I'm talking specifically the name of one man/word "praise".

Also perhaps worth noting is that the name Ahmed/Hamed/Ahmad also predate Muhammad's birth.

You also need to take into account that culture plays a major role in how names are given. I don't mean Western vs Mideast. I mean group to group. Rich white Americans have historically (and still today) had different naming patterns than poor white Americans. Some cultures want trendy names. Some want unique names. Some name babies after undesirable traits. Some name people after deceased relatives, and some strictly forbid that practice.

That Muhammad is incredibly common among Muslims and Musium Arabs isn't any more shocking than that Jesús is common among Hispanic Catholics. The only real difference comes down to a difference in population numbers of the two groups.