It seems most western countries outlawed slavery around the time of the industrial revolution. Is it viewed as a causal factor? If not, what historical factors contributed?
First we must define the origins of the industrial revolution and try to pinpoint its Genesis. Eli Whitney's Cotton Gin allowed massive amounts of raw material available as never before in history (and a further demand for slave labor in USA). This product was shipped to England where their "factories" created finished cotton products for all the world. But the true foundation of the industrial revolution is military (surprised?). The US Government demanded a contractor who could manufacture rifles with interchangeable parts so when a soldier in battle needed his rifle fixed it would no longer be a single skilled craftsman needed to do a lengthy repair or replacement. The major USA Armory was in Springfield and this method of manufacturing became known as "The Springfield Method" and really pinpoints the mass manufacture (interchangeable parts and unskilled labor) that we now call the industrial revolution. Lets call it the mid 19th Century. England and France had long outlawed Slavery prior to then and this issue became one of the primary reasons that both countries refused to recognize the Confederate States of America as an independent country during the US Civil War (a/k/a The War of the Rebellion).