I wonder this as now I'm studying Aristotle. I've looked on google and couldn't find an answer. I have this personal hypothesis that modern film replaced the tragedy and plays so I'm wondering how close they come together time wise. A normal film you'd expect to last 2 hours but how long would your normal play last?
In I.7, which I am assuming inspired this question, Aristotle talks a bit about this:
As, therefore, in the case of animate bodies and organisms a certain magnitude is necessary, and a magnitude which may be easily embraced in one view; so in the plot, a certain length is necessary, and a length which can be easily embraced by the memory. The limit of length in relation to dramatic competition and sensuous presentment is no part of artistic theory. For had it been the rule for a hundred tragedies to compete together, the performance would have been regulated by the water-clock- as indeed we are told was formerly done. But the limit as fixed by the nature of the drama itself is this: the greater the length, the more beautiful will the piece be by reason of its size, provided that the whole be perspicuous. And to define the matter roughly, we may say that the proper magnitude is comprised within such limits, that the sequence of events, according to the law of probability or necessity, will admit of a change from bad fortune to good, or from good fortune to bad.
But for your specific question, the only real way to get at it is to just go ahead and time yourself reading a play. Greek tragedies tend to be rather shorter than Shakespeare's, and it is fairly doable to put one on in about an hour.