You may not get many answers. I would suggest checking out this AMA as it might explain the scarcity of answers. Not suggesting that people shouldn't take a stab at it, but maybe check this out all the same. https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2bs0rc/ama_feudalism_didnt_exist_the_social_political/

Follow-up: how did "feudalism" differ from Byzantine and earlier Roman practices?