I remember one of my history professors in college said that 1 of the many reasons that Rome fell was that its government was not suited to ruling the large area of land that eventually became its empire; in essence that the Roman system of government was suited for a smaller nation. Is there any truth to this claim?
Hi there!
Over here in the FAQ is a whole list of questions in this same vein that have already been extensively answered.
If you still have any specific questions after scrolling through some of these, then I'd be more than happy to answer them.
I've written a bit on this subject in a previous answer. If you have any follow-up questions after reading that, do let me know.