As the title says I'm very curious as to how someone who essentially was Chancellor for less than a month weilded enough power that he could ban all political parties? I'm assuming the fact that the NSDAP had a majority in the Reichstag?
The NSDAP never had a majority in the Reichstag (before the other parties were abolished, that is). At the last elections in March 1933, the NSDAP gained almost a majority of 44%. That was a huge victory, considered the fact that the party obtained a vote share of about a third six months before. Adolf Hitler already was Chancellor (since January 1933), this is due to the fact that the reigning Conservatives wanted to 'temper' Hitler by making him a part of the coalition, they thought his tone would be more moderate by then.
After the fire in the Reichstag, freedoms were abolished. The Enabling Act, in German Ermächtigungsgesetz, was not yet enacted. Hitler had to convince the other parties that this act was needed (he needed a two third majority), because of the instability since the fire in the Reichstag. The communists were not welcome in Parliament anymore, they were considered like enemies of the state. The other parties were quite easily convinced by Hitler, who was a great orator (he promised a 'national revolution' to the conservatives and a concordate with the pope for the catholics) and had a good-working propganda machine. The parties thought Reichspräsident Von Hindenburg would have stopped Hitler, but Von Hindenburg had no power to do that since the Enabling Act.
Only the Social-Democratic Party voted against the Enabling Act. On July, 14, 1933, all other political parties were abolished.
[source: De Lange Twintigste Eeuw, Dutch study book on the 20th century, by: P. Caljé and J. den Hollander]