I found a source (see in text) that claims that the American accent has changed less than the British accent since 1776, so modern American is closer to old English than the modern British English. How factual is this?

by eccekevin

The main difference, according to the source, is rhotacism. I have also hear this claim elsewhere in this forum and /r/linguistics

source: http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/chat/2604480/posts

Evan_Morris

Just to clarify, Old English became obsolete in the late 11th century. No modern English is really similar either in lexicon or accent to Old English.

The English of the colonists is a form of early modern English.

fyijesuisunchat

A linguist wouldn't support this, because it's nonsense. Several American dialects are non-rhotic, and several British ones are rhotic. There's a lot more to dialect change than a single sound, and there are a lot of dialects to compare.