Could you provide some examples of where you have seen or heard this, or the context of the assertion? It strikes me as a very unusual argument. I would also ask what you mean by "Moors." That term has a large number of potential meanings in terms of both time and place.

No. The word "Moor" generally reference to any black or Muslim person living Europe, plus their supposed land of origin, North Africa.

Though the lands of Islam during the Middle Ages were more "civilized" in the ways we today would typically consider (math / science / literature / religious freedom etc), Europeans were by no means lacking in their own culture at the time.

Though exposure to Muslim concepts in the Middle Ages no doubt affected Europe (for example, we use the base 10 number system developed by Muslims during this time, hence why we call them "Arabic numerals," despite them not actually looking like numbers do in Arabic), I wouldn't say that the Europeans learned EVERYTHING from Islam. Many philosophers and scientists either rediscovered Roman inventions or developed their own method, which eventually grew into the body of Western thought we know today.